[xcurt]

Two XIMPs hands both unfavorable.

1. In 4th, you acquire QJ32, 74, KT96542, --

P - 1NT - P - 2C
Dbl - Rdbl - P - ?

1NT was 15-17.

2. In 3rd, you acquire 5, A9, QJT982, KJ74

1S-P-?

You are playing 2/1. If you bid 1NT, you now hear

1S-P-1NT-2H
P-3H-?

That didn't work so well. What now?

[maggieb]

1) 3♣, re-stayman. No point in mentioning the diamonds, we are either playing this in 3N or 4♠. 3♦ risks getting raised, in which case I just wanted to play 3N anyway.

2) I would've started with 2♦, but given that I responded 1N, now I have found out that partner is very likely to be either 5233 or 52(42) and minimum (I wouldn't pass 2♥ with basically any hand with heart shortness, but I'm aware that this is not completely standard). Anyway I would just guess 3N and try to get lucky.

Edit: Changed my mind to problem 1.

[mike777]

xcurt, on Oct 2 2009, 10:24 PM, said:

Two XIMPs hands both unfavorable.

1.  In 4th, you acquire QJ32, 74, KT96542, --

P - 1NT - P - 2C
Dbl - Rdbl - P - ?

1NT was 15-17.

2.  In 3rd, you acquire 5, A9, QJT982, KJ74

1S-P-?

You are playing 2/1.  If you bid 1NT, you now hear

1S-P-1NT-2H
P-3H-?

That didn't work so well.  What now?

1)???....I just tfr to clubs easy.
2) I bid 1nt
3) now 4nt

[aguahombre]

mike777, on Oct 2 2009, 11:22 PM, said:

xcurt, on Oct 2 2009, 10:24 PM, said:

Two XIMPs hands both unfavorable.

1.  In 4th, you acquire QJ32, 74, KT96542, --

P - 1NT - P - 2C
Dbl - Rdbl - P - ?

1NT was 15-17.

2.  In 3rd, you acquire 5, A9, QJT982, KJ74

1S-P-?

You are playing 2/1.  If you bid 1NT, you now hear

1S-P-1NT-2H
P-3H-?

That didn't work so well.  What now?

1)???....I just tfr to clubs easy.
2) I bid 1nt
3) now 4nt

number one...look again...u are smokin that same stuff..clubs is your void.

[Fluffy]

tough problems . I will bid 3♦ on first not masterminding. partner can bid 3♥/♠/NT even with fit if he wants to.

The second I will do whatever systemic approach for invitational. 3♦ for some would work greatly.

After 1NT I will try a simple 4♦.

[mike777]

aguahombre, on Oct 2 2009, 11:33 PM, said:

mike777, on Oct 2 2009, 11:22 PM, said:

xcurt, on Oct 2 2009, 10:24 PM, said:

Two XIMPs hands both unfavorable.

1.  In 4th, you acquire QJ32, 74, KT96542, --

P - 1NT - P - 2C
Dbl - Rdbl - P - ?

1NT was 15-17.

2.  In 3rd, you acquire 5, A9, QJT982, KJ74

1S-P-?

You are playing 2/1.  If you bid 1NT, you now hear

1S-P-1NT-2H
P-3H-?

That didn't work so well.  What now?

1)???....I just tfr to clubs easy.
2) I bid 1nt
3) now 4nt

number one...look again...u are smokin that same stuff..clubs is your void.

they are?

if so....tfr to d....is that my long suit..........you guys need to make suits...

again easy/..once i know....what the heck my suits are.

[andy_h]

1) Just curious - was my original plan, after stayman and 2♥ response, to bid 2♠ (inv with 4♠) then if partner bids 2NT correct that to 3♦? What if partner had bid 3NT over 2♠?
Anyways, partner is showing a decent club suit possibly AQJ9 or KQ109 or better but my hand seems quite useless so I'm not prepared to play in 2♣XX. Partner can still have a 4cM but I'm not prepared to risk forcing to game (5♦) to look for it so I will bid a quiet 2♦ for now. If however, my original plan was to bid a NF 3♦ over partner's 2♥ stayman response then I will quite happily bid 3♦ now since I can't have 5+♦&4M GF hand.

2) I have a stiff in partner's suit, so why should I have to game force with this hand when I can show diamonds and invitational hand? So 1NT is what I bid if that is my systemic bid to later show an invitational hand. After the given proceeded auction I am not deterred from my original plan so I bid my longest suit, 4♦. I understand partner can have 5215 but he's more often going to hold 5233 or 5224 or 5242. I'm tempted to bid 5♦ rather because there's lots of ordinary hands where partner may not raise us given that we were under pressure of competitive bidding so our 4♦ doesn't exactly promise an invitational hand. AKxxx xx Axx xxx would be an alright game or AQxxx Qx Kxx Qxx or AJxxx xx Kxx Axx but if partner's spades is not headed by the Ace such as KQ10xx xx Kxx Axx then it ain't good. So I'm going to bid 5 if we're vul.

[pooltuna]

1.) Is 2♦ conventional if not WTP?

2.) 3♥ was first and foremost a question! So answer it! 3NT

[andy_h]

pooltuna, on Oct 4 2009, 12:21 AM, said:

2.) 3♥ was first and foremost a question! So answer it! 3NT

Answer to our RHO?
If you really did see the auction properly, how is 3NT ever going to be a good contract when you only have 1 stopper with running-less diamonds?

[pooltuna]

andy_h, on Oct 3 2009, 08:36 AM, said:

pooltuna, on Oct 4 2009, 12:21 AM, said:

2.) 3♥ was first and foremost a question!  So answer it!  3NT

Answer to our RHO?
If you really did see the auction properly, how is 3NT ever going to be a good contract when you only have 1 stopper with running-less diamonds?

oops looked at the auction wrong guess I will defend now.

[Phil]

1) The way I play, partner is promising HHxxx of clubs or HHxx (with two big cards). That's about a 1/3 of pard's points hitting our void. I like 2♦ now; while I'm not sure many have discussed what 3♦ it sounds game forcing to me.

2) I like double. We have trump control and a stiff in pard's suit. If pard pulls to 4m we aren't unhappy either.

[dake50]

1. What did redouble add to 15-17bal? Good clubs? Yuck! 3C -- hope partner can guess well. Prime cards, not quacks so good defense? 2D -- offensive hand.

2. 2D 'where I live' first round. Now does partner's pass promise minimum? Pass
Let me clarify my 1N? Double.