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In the original thread, I was absolutely astonished nearly everybody advocated an inverted vlub raise or a direct ace ask (by whichever method we had).
Our auction was
(P) 1C (P) 1D
(1N*) P (2H) 3H
(P) 3N (P) 6C
(P) P (Dbl) P
(P) 6D AP
Made seven on C9 lead, but in this auction I might have made seven anyway whether in clubs or diamonds, after the revealing 1NT overcall, but wouldn't we all like to be in diamonds in any case or at least find out if we should be in grand where grand requires finding out if partner has diamond queen - which is why I chose to respond 1D. Am I really so much different than the mainstream in that thread? And what is the harm in 1D response anyway? We did not have SJS or any other JS available for strong hands. System was 2/1 Walsh.
Opener had AKxx-Axx-Qxx-1065.