AndreSteff, on 2011-January-16, 11:47, said:
I have been to lenient, as I awarded NS 3 tricks in 5♣ doubled. It should have been two.
West's pass on 5♥ for me certainly passed the shudder test, 5♥ and 5♠ both can be on, so I distracted the difference in IMPs between 5♥-2 and 5♥X-2 from the 16 IMPs that EW won on this hand. Thinking about it, I cannot be sure that a double of 5♥ would have passed the shudder test either, when the contract would have been made. My agreement is thus: after freely bidding a vulnerable game against non-vulnerable opponents we either play, or defend a doubled contact. East's pass then conveys the message, that he thinks 5♠ may be made. Since partner had no penalty double, while I hold a void 5♠ must be the winning call.
I polled three players on this and they agreed, but two of them would have doubled in stead of bid 5♠.
Moreover, West told me that he had wanted to call me after the 5♥ call, but that his partner (a TD) had told him not too as "everybody knew what was going on anyway".
I agree with the rectification adjustment to 5
♣x by North; you are right that the contract would probably make two tricks rather than three.
However, I strongly disagree with your denial of redress to East/West, the non-offending side. Here is why.
1. As a matter of Law, the TD can only deny redress to East/West if either of their Passes over 5
♥ is deemed to be "wild" and/or "gambling". It is not sufficient for either of the Passes to be deemed to be a "serious error" as the opportunity to make these calls is clearly related to the infraction of the 5
♥ bid.
2. Just because the TD happens to play Pass as forcing in this particular sequence at this vulnerability, there is no reason why East/West should have this agreement.
3. High level competitive bidding decisions are rarely easy. To illustrate the point, we need look no further than the people consulted by the TD: two out of the three said they would double 5
♥, despite holding a trump void and probably at most one defensive trick.
4. As I understand it, West's stated reasoning for passing was that he was concerned that either a 5
♠ bid or a double from him might be interpreted as wild or gambling by the TD. The TD should sympathise with a non-offender's predicament in this situation. Remember, it was North, not West, who caused this mess!
5. Some commentators have suggested over the years that the non-offenders are supposed to "continue to play bridge" after an irregularity. OK, let's analyse the situation as West. North can't have a natural 3
♣ overcall now that he has run from 5
♣x. Perhaps we have come across Gh****m misunderstanding before and we infer that North has both red suits. Can North be 5-5 in the reds? Not really, no. In that case, North would be bound to stay in 5
♣x because that is what Law 16 requires him to do; West knows that 3
♣ has not been alerted and therefore knows that North's actions have been constrained by the UI.
As West, we therefore infer that North has no logical alternative to pulling 5
♣x so he must have a freak hand with a lot of playing strength such as
♠none
♥KQJ10xxx
♦AJ10xxx
♣none.
In that case, doubling 5
♥ would be a very poor idea. Competing to 5
♠ might be a better option, but (i) we can expect bad breaks in the black suits too and (ii) who is to say that bidding 5
♠ won't push them into a making 6
♥?
In summary, West's Pass is nowhere close to being either wild or gambling. If North had not broken the Law, E/W would probably have been writing down +2300 after an enjoyable defence. They've already been denied their enjoyable defence, so the least the TD can do is to give them back their +2300.