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Defending against Polish Club taken from PC thread

#1 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2011-February-03, 14:19

Rather than taking over the other thread, moved.

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I didn't mean to say that I don't like your agreements. I took a look and those looks sensible to me with the following remarks:

a)
6th hand bidding:

Most people play dbl here as t/o and I don't see compelling reason to play it as showing their suit. Why would I want to take action holding their suit anyway ? I could always bid natural 1NT if I really want or just pass. This seems to be both bad and artificial to me.

Holding: AQxx xx AWxx KWx I really want to dbl after:

1C pass 1D pass
1H ????

We may be collecting heavily afterall. I also want my natural 1S overcall with a hand which was too weak to overcall first time around (like KJT9x Kxx xx xxx being vulnerable)

b)1C - pass - 1D again I think all natural is better. Why would I give up natural 1NT here ? It puts opener on lead and makes subsequent auction easy.

c)In this situation, 2 should be the cuebid, as would have been the easiest overcall to make after 1. A bid in the other major is likely to show only 4 cards and is 1 round forcing (as it may be the strong NT hand).

I agree with this and it's really a nice idea.
People tend to play that always 2♣ is cuebid in 1♣ auctions though (which has advantage of allowing to distinguish medium and trash hands (2D/2M) but has disadvantage of losing club suit).


Thank you for your comments. Let me go over them:

a) After 1 - pass - 1 - 1: If you have a strong NT you must bid now as partner will be too weak. The T/O hands you might have are strong NT hands with a doubleton or a rather pure three-suited hand (otherwise you could have bid 1NT or 1). Partner's response to these hand types must be different. Opposite the 4432, he should often pass. Opposite 5440, he shouldn't. And partner couldn't overcall 1 over 1 either. So I'll stick to my choice.

b ) What would you use as a cuebid after 1 - 1, or if nothing, how do you deal with 5 - 5 in the majors? 2 may well be needed for natural hands. Also, if you have a strong NT it isn't going anywhere. And if it is, because either opponent doesn't have the weak variation, you'll be glad you didn't bid it.
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#2 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2011-February-03, 15:05

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a) After 1♣ - pass - 1♦ - 1♥: If you have a strong NT you must bid now as partner will be too weak. The T/O hands you might have are strong NT hands with a doubleton ♥ or a rather pure three-suited hand (otherwise you could have bid 1NT or 1♦). Partner's response to these hand types must be different. Opposite the 4432, he should often pass. Opposite 5440, he shouldn't. And partner couldn't overcall 1♥ over 1♦ either. So I'll stick to my choice.


Fine. I guess it's matter of preference.
I will just notice that even in Lambda defence (when you pass any hand 16+hcp initially), the double on 6th seat:

1C pass 1D pass
1H dbl
is either t/o to hearts or 16+any hand; with t/o to spades (ie. 2-4-3-4 etc.) and 12-15hcp you just pass again so the problems appears to be:

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If you have a strong NT you must bid now as partner will be too weak


I don't agree that you have to bid but certainly see how passing could yield suboptimal results :)

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b ) What would you use as a cuebid after 1♣ - 1♦, or if nothing, how do you deal with 5 - 5 in the majors? 2♦ may well be needed for natural hands. Also, if you have a strong NT it isn't going anywhere. And if it is, because either opponent doesn't have the weak variation, you'll be glad you didn't bid it.


My opinion is much weaker here than on the first point. I prefer all natural, no cuebid and drury from partner side. I may be easily convinced one way or the other though. Those agreements just seems natural but probably that's because people play that way in Poland and I am used to them.
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