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2D 18-19 bal Transfer Walsh

#1 User is offline   Raff90 

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Posted 2012-February-27, 13:04

So here is the thing:
My partner and I are playing 2/1 with transfers on 1.
1 opening shows 5+ unbalanced or 4441.
1-1-1 = showing 3 card fit and forcing.
I know not many people play it that way but our partnership wont change it in the next 2 months
because of upcoming tournaments. Afterwards we might try out something different.
So with this version sometimes rebidding with long and 3card or 4card fit after Transfer is difficult.
Lets not say difficult but it just takes more time to show your hand and youre wasting bidding space.
So i want to add that 2 opening is 18-19 balanced. So that after 1-1-2NT shows 16+ with 5+ clubs and (any?) distribution.
Does anyone has experience with the answers after that sequenze? Or is it good at all?
I hope i didnt confuse you all with my text xD.
So here my question in one or two Phrases:
1) How should the answers after 1-1-2NT look like?
2) After 1-1 ( showing 6-9 balanced ) is 2NT still 16+?
3) After 1-1NT ( showing 10-11 bal ) is 2NT still 16+?
4) Should 1-1-2NT include 3 card fit in the major?

Thx in advance!
Raff
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#2 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2012-February-27, 15:30

1C-1D, 2N is very preemptive. If you want it to show clubs, it should show something specific...like maybe a good hand with six clubs and three of partner's suit....maybe something else.

Here's a thread for Mexican 2D...

http://www.bridgebas...-to-mexican-2d/

Mexican 2C leaves a lot more room, but then your strong opening (2D) would suffer.

You might think to combine meanings for 1C-1D, 2D and 1C-1H, 2H. Instead of handling only reverses, they may handle other things as well...like major suit raises.

Just a straw man...

1C-1D (showing hearts)
.....1S-natural and forcing
.....2C-clubs
.....2D-good heart raise, possibly 3 hearts
..........2H-weak
..........2S-asking
.....2H-weaker heart raise, usually 4 hearts
.....2S-reverse in diamonds, not interested in hearts
.....2N-bal 18-19
.....3C-invitational, denies 3 hearts
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#3 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2012-February-27, 16:17

View PostRaff90, on 2012-February-27, 13:04, said:

So here is the thing:
My partner and I are playing 2/1 with transfers on 1.
1 opening shows 5+ unbalanced or 4441.
1-1-1 = showing 3 card fit and forcing.
I know not many people play it that way but our partnership wont change it in the next 2 months
because of upcoming tournaments. Afterwards we might try out something different.
So with this version sometimes rebidding with long and 3card or 4card fit after Transfer is difficult.
Lets not say difficult but it just takes more time to show your hand and youre wasting bidding space.
So i want to add that 2 opening is 18-19 balanced. So that after 1-1-2NT shows 16+ with 5+ clubs and (any?) distribution.
Does anyone has experience with the answers after that sequenze? Or is it good at all?
I hope i didnt confuse you all with my text xD.
So here my question in one or two Phrases:
1) How should the answers after 1-1-2NT look like?
2) After 1-1 ( showing 6-9 balanced ) is 2NT still 16+?
3) After 1-1NT ( showing 10-11 bal ) is 2NT still 16+?
4) Should 1-1-2NT include 3 card fit in the major?

Thx in advance!
Raff




2d as 18-19 bal is the Mexican 2d....much has been written abou itt here in the forums.


90-95% of your auctions start:


2d=2s(forces 2nt)
2nt=then you have nt auctions.

If you have any questions about a specific auction feel free to ask.


you can play 1x=1y=2nt as 17 bal with a 14-16 1nt or you can play it as the BW death hand... with 3y trump support.

the main reason I play this is to make my other wide one level bidding more limited and to throw many hands into a nt type auction
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#4 User is offline   Raff90 

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Posted 2012-February-28, 03:48

View Postmike777, on 2012-February-27, 16:17, said:

2d as 18-19 bal is the Mexican 2d....much has been written abou itt here in the forums.


90-95% of your auctions start:


2d=2s(forces 2nt)
2nt=then you have nt auctions.

If you have any questions about a specific auction feel free to ask.


you can play 1x=1y=2nt as 17 bal with a 14-16 1nt or you can play it as the BW death hand... with 3y trump support.

the main reason I play this is to make my other wide one level bidding more limited and to throw many hands into a nt type auction

What means BW death hand?
And yes we play "mexican 2". We have a very good system for this, so i dont worry about the 2 opening.
But what i really wonder about is:
After 1- 1( or ) - 2NT
3 is relay. What does lvl 3 bids show if 2nt shows 16+ 5+?
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#5 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2012-February-28, 05:24

We play that 1-1/1-2NT shows 15+ with six clubs and three-card support or 15-17 points with five clubs and four-card support. It is not game forcing. The responses are:

3 - to play
3 - four-card major, game forcing
3M - to play
3OM - five-card major, game forcing

After the game-forcing responses, opener normally bids at the three-level with three-card support and four-level with four-card support. Fairly easy to remember, which is important as it is not that frequent but useful when it does come up.

We have found that limiting the range of the four-card support hand has helped a lot.
The Beer Card

I don't work for BBO and any advice is based on my BBO experience over the decades
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