Is this type of RKC-sequence defined? What is your actual interpretation?
#1
Posted 2012-November-21, 16:31
1♣ - 1♥(shows 4+sp),
3♠(promises 18-19 bal, exactly 4 sp) - 4♦(serious CB, denies CB in ♣),
4NT(RKC 1430) - 5♣(1 or 4 of 5)
5♦(asks) - 5♥(CB in ♥ and either ♠Q or ekstra length in ♠)
5♠?
Bonus info: In our system all defined bids above 5♠ would deny a CB in ♥ and promise ♠Q or extra ♠ length: 5NT, 6♣, 6♦, and 6♠. Maybe that is part of the problem, and perhaps we should also define 6♥?
More generally: do you have an agreement, what it means when partner bids trump on the 5-level, after having received the only positive reply to his trumpQ-relay below 5 in trump?
/Niels
#2
Posted 2012-November-21, 16:39
To me this means that partner needs ♠Q and a king in a minor for slam, he knows we don't have ♣K so gotta be ♦K, and its afraid to lose ♦K +♠A.
Its hard to imagine a hand that requires ♦K for slam, maybe he has ♠Kxxx ♥A ♦QJx ♣AKxxx
#3
Posted 2012-November-21, 16:49
Fluffy, on 2012-November-21, 16:39, said:
Though 3♠ is defined as 18-19 balanced, I agree that the hand you propose is possible.
We do not show singleton aces as splinters: 1♣-1♥(=4+♠), 3♦/♥ (=4♠,singleton ♦/♥, but not the A).
/Niels
#4
Posted 2012-November-21, 19:23
#5
Posted 2012-November-21, 19:51
#6
Posted 2012-November-21, 20:00
Jinksy, on 2012-November-21, 19:51, said:
True. This would have been a good hand to bid 3NT showing the count close for slam without anything particular to cue. We don't need serious/non-serious when opener has already shown size within one HCP and the balanced shape.
4D as a side source of tricks would be a good thing to show, but responder doesn't have that.
#7
Posted 2012-November-22, 01:38
Looking at ♣QJ, I'm pretty sure that I'm going to disagree with partner's 4NT bid. I can't think of any hand where it's right for him to take control.
With the actual hand, obviously we should bid again. Partner wanted to be in slam opposite AJ764 QT5 K76 QJ, so he wants to be in slam opposite this. If we think we want to be in a grand slam missing the queen of trumps, we can bid 6♦, just in case he's lost his mind and has Kxxx Ax Axx AKxx.
#8
Posted 2012-November-22, 01:54
aguahombre, on 2012-November-21, 19:23, said:
On this hand I think it's sensible to show the queen of trumps. Our outside cards, especially ♣QJ, mean that we're likely to be solid outside the spade suit. We may well be able to play in 6NT, allowing us to delay the spade guess until we know the layout of the side suits. For example, if our Keycard-addicted partner has Kxxx AQx Qx AKxx, 6NT is a fine contract.
#9
Posted 2012-November-22, 02:34
#10
Posted 2012-November-22, 05:17
Jinksy, on 2012-November-21, 19:51, said:
aguahombre, on 2012-November-21, 20:00, said:
Jinksy/Aquahombre got me there (not the first time!) - you are right 4♦ is just a CB denying CB in ♣. 3NT from me (responder) would have been a proposal to play, though it may be wrong-sided.
aguahombre, on 2012-November-21, 19:23, said:
gnasher, on 2012-November-22, 01:54, said:
At the table, I judged the trump-quality in its context with the remaining hand, as described by Gnasher. However, when partner then bid 5♠, I wondered whether he would have expected me to bid 6♠ (or anything else committing to slam) on all hands with trump Q, and also on hands with extra spade length but without a CB in ♥, whereas he would only make a NF invitation if I responded 5♥ showing CB and extra length (i.e. denying trump Q). Should that be the definition of 5♠ in these type of sequences?
#11
Posted 2012-November-22, 10:23
Zelandakh, on 2012-November-22, 02:34, said:
I was thinking the same thing ( about 5S! and 5NT! ) , but my problem is how can Responder show the ♠Q or extra length when he knows they only hold 9 cards w/o the Q ? I would think Responder would need 6 cards w/o the Q to make a positive reply .
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
#12
Posted 2012-November-22, 15:25
TWO4BRIDGE, on 2012-November-22, 10:23, said:
The a priori chance of solving the trump suit holding Kxxx to AJxxx is 53.2% (due to the ♠J!), and even 58% if partner holds at least K98x. If the 3 other suits are easy played for 1 looser, that makes a reasonable slam. Yes, I know IF is an if, but of the 7-8 hcp we do not hold, 1 Ace and trump Q counts for most. As mentioned by Gnasher, solving the ♠ suit may even become more likely, if we steer into 6NT, and thereby are able to postpone playing that suit.
On top of that comes if the missing Ace is actually ♠K! Partner may hold for example T9xx / AQx / Ax / AKxx (which is even just 17!). Also, partner may have bid a sophisticated 5♦ relay holding ♠Q himself! For example holding QTxx / AQJ / AJ / Axxx and simply be looking for more than a 4-card spade suit in my hand!
/Niels
#13
Posted 2012-November-23, 02:19
nielsfoged, on 2012-November-22, 15:25, said:
And when partner was looking for a grand slam...?
#14
Posted 2012-November-23, 03:25
Zelandakh, on 2012-November-23, 02:19, said:
Partner is limited and known to be balanced, whereas the strength of our hand is unknown. Partner doesn't have the queen or jack of his first-bid suit. It is inconceivable that partner will drive a grand slam uninvited.
Look at the actual auction. Partner is the one who knows whether we have all the keycards. However, we control whether partner is allowed to bid a grand slam - if we bid 6♠ or 6NT he will pass; if we bid 6♦ that invites him to bid a grand slam, provided that we have all the keycards.
Having said that, I would be very happy to reach 7♠ having shown the queen of trumps, if the rest of the hand is solid. Much of the time the opponents will lead a trump; if they don't, I'll play the opening leader for the queen.
#15
Posted 2012-November-23, 03:34
nielsfoged, on 2012-November-21, 16:49, said:
We do not show singleton aces as splinters: 1♣-1♥(=4+♠), 3♦/♥ (=4♠,singleton ♦/♥, but not the A).
That's what I though, also possible is ♠Kxxx ♥AQ ♦QJx ♣AK10x where ♥K is not very important, even if partner doesn't have it, it can be finesed or discarded on diamonds.
#16
Posted 2012-November-23, 11:55
#17
Posted 2012-November-23, 13:32
ArtK78, on 2012-November-23, 11:55, said:
Sorry, but I do not understand this comment! Here the player bids RKCB and follows up by asking for trump Q, which is a non-signoff call. However that call could either be an attempt to reach/invite grandslam holding all keycards, or an attempt to avoid slam if lacking one keycard and trump Q. If you accept that, the judging of whether the player who bid RKCB now means 5♠ to be non-signoff or signoff is exactly the question that started this discussion, and not its answer.

/Niels
#18
Posted 2012-November-24, 09:43
nielsfoged, on 2012-November-23, 13:32, said:

/Niels
As a matter of proper bidding technique, when bidding RKCB you should be prepared to bid a slam if the response indicates that no more than one key card is missing. You should not enter into RKCB if you don't want to be in a slam missing a key card AND the trump queen. Therefore, the second ask should be a grand slam try (and therefore slam forcing).
I know that others disagree with this. That is fine if that is your agreement. It is not the way I want to play RKCB.
#20
Posted 2012-November-26, 03:07
nielsfoged, on 2012-November-23, 13:32, said:
I think it was pretty clear what Art meant. Bidding RKCB says we have enough for slam unless we are missing 2 of the 6 base cards (trump AKQ, 3 side aces). If the trump queen is asked for and a positive answer given, that means we have enough for slam. In that context making 5♠ the king ask is simply common sense. The situation is different if we get a negative answer to a queen ask. Now a further positive move can be interpreted as an ask for extra trump length.