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How do you continue?

#1 User is offline   Trick13 

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Posted 2016-May-28, 23:13



IMPS
1 = 5+ 11-15 hcp. In 3rd position it could be 10.

Your possible continuations with this passed hand are:

1. Pass then support spades next round. [Range = I'm not sure what hand would take this option. Option 3 is safe with a weak hand and more obstructive.]
2. 1NT forcing asking partner to show strength and any extra length. If you rebid 2 you might have only 2-card support. If you rebid 3 you would show 3 and about 8 hcp.
3. 2 which asks partner to bid 2 which you will pass. Only with an exceptional hand will partner break the transfer. [Range = any hand you don't think is worth an invite. Could be **very** weak.]
4. 2 which shows a constructive 9-10 without a shortage.

Which would you choose?

[Edit: Added ranges for 1 and 3]

[Of course I wouldn't be posting this if there wasn't an unhappy ending.]
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#2 User is offline   apollo1201 

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Posted 2016-May-29, 02:35

Qulifying this hand as a constructive ralse would be a gross overbid (the SA is great but a doubleton Q and the HJ are dubious values).

However, it has full values for a direct raise (6-8 I guess then, too bad you didn't specify ranges for option 1 and 3) and above all it is key to show partner asap we have a fit and some (moderate) values in case opps compete so that he can decide.

So option 3 it will be.
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#3 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2016-May-29, 02:50

View PostTrick13, on 2016-May-28, 23:13, said:


IMP Your possible continuations with this passed hand are:

1. Pass then support spades next round.
2. 1NT forcing asking partner to show strength and any extra length. If you rebid 2 you might have only 2-card support. If you rebid 3 you would show 3 and about 8 hcp.
3. 2 which asks partner to bid 2 which you will pass. Only with an exceptional hand will partner break the transfer.
4. 2 which shows a constructive 9-10 without a shortage.

Agree with Apollo1201. Game seems unlikely. I rank
  • 2 = TRF. 0-8 HCP. 3 card support.
  • 1N = ART. F1. Would discover 4-4 fit.
  • Pass = NAT.
  • 2 = INV. 9-10 HCP. BAL raise.

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#4 User is offline   SteveMoe 

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Posted 2016-May-29, 10:32

2 with these methods. Since precision has a single raise at 8-10 to begin with, 2[s] is not much of an overbid as a passed hand. The downside of 2 is it gives enterprising defenders more bids to find fit and level.
Be the partner you want to play with.
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#5 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2016-May-29, 11:12

Hi,

Option 3 givens them the chance to locate there heart fit cheaply.
I would go with forcing NT.
Since we have spades, hiding the 3rd spade does not hurt, and I
dont want to play on the 3 level.

And I would switch the meaning of 2H and 2S in competive seq.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#6 User is offline   johnu 

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Posted 2016-May-29, 21:18

View PostTrick13, on 2016-May-28, 23:13, said:

Your possible continuations with this passed hand are:

1. Pass then support spades next round. [Range = I'm not sure what hand would take this option. Option 3 is safe with a weak hand and more obstructive.]
2. 1NT forcing asking partner to show strength and any extra length. If you rebid 2 you might have only 2-card support. If you rebid 3 you would show 3 and about 8 hcp.
3. 2 which asks partner to bid 2 which you will pass. Only with an exceptional hand will partner break the transfer. [Range = any hand you don't think is worth an invite. Could be **very** weak.]
4. 2 which shows a constructive 9-10 without a shortage.



Is this a homegrown system or did somebody read it in a book or on the internet?

It makes sense to switch 2 and 2. 2 as weak or very weak gives West an easier way into the auction with a double. With a constructive 9-10, this is much more likely to be your hand, especially since your side has spades so you shouldn't be as worried about the opponents.

I don't understand why you would raise to 3 with 8 HCP after initially responding 1NT. In an uncontested auction, a lot of 2/1 players will rebid 3 after responding 1NT to show a limit raise, but with a limit raise you expect to have a decent play to make 3 if partner has a minimum.
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#7 User is offline   Trick13 

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Posted 2016-May-30, 01:46

View Postjohnu, on 2016-May-29, 21:18, said:

Is this a homegrown system or did somebody read it in a book or on the internet?

It makes sense to switch 2 and 2. 2 as weak or very weak gives West an easier way into the auction with a double. With a constructive 9-10, this is much more likely to be your hand, especially since your side has spades so you shouldn't be as worried about the opponents.

Homegrown. To keep things simpler we make the same responses if we are a passed hand, they don't make as much sense but it hasn't been an issue. If an unpassed hand, 2 would show either GF with 5+, 4+ with 12-13 hcp, or a raise with less than invitational values.

View Postjohnu, on 2016-May-29, 21:18, said:

I don't understand why you would raise to 3 with 8 HCP after initially responding 1NT. In an uncontested auction, a lot of 2/1 players will rebid 3 after responding 1NT to show a limit raise, but with a limit raise you expect to have a decent play to make 3 if partner has a minimum.

This would only be if partner has shows a maximum with a 6 card suit, and we like our 8 hcp.
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#8 User is offline   Trick13 

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Posted 2016-May-30, 02:08

Without the double over partner, I might have been more sanguine about our chances and bid a forcing 1NT. It turned out that doubler had the top hearts and diamonds as I feared so I had just one good card for partner. But after transferring to 2 and passing it out, my big mistake was to remark "I hope it's not too good". Partner turned out to be 6-4 the black suits and 10 tricks were laydown. I'm filing this is the 'you can't bid them all basket'. Maybe partner could have tried 3 showing for us a club suit on the side.
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#9 User is offline   johnu 

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Posted 2016-May-30, 10:42

View PostTrick13, on 2016-May-30, 02:08, said:

Without the double over partner, I might have been more sanguine about our chances and bid a forcing 1NT. It turned out that doubler had the top hearts and diamonds as I feared so I had just one good card for partner. But after transferring to 2 and passing it out, my big mistake was to remark "I hope it's not too good". Partner turned out to be 6-4 the black suits and 10 tricks were laydown. I'm filing this is the 'you can't bid them all basket'. Maybe partner could have tried 3 showing for us a club suit on the side.


If 1 card is enough to make a good game, partner almost certainly misbid (would need to see hand to verify). Or was it a case of 2 or 3 finesses, a good break, and a little misdefense.
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#10 User is offline   gszes 

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Posted 2016-May-30, 17:11

You have little to no game aspirations and getting to 2s vul might be a bad spot anyway. I see little reason for doing anything other than pass and let it go no matter what happens (unless p bids something else).

system comment--

A side thought when u use 2h this way it might be better to use it as almost always weak OR 17+ and serious slam interest (which u will almost always get to show later). This will limit your power on most hands and and leave you some valuable bidding space when slam appears imminent).
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