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Partnership discipline

Poll: Partnership discipline (21 member(s) have cast votes)

Was it correct to bid?

  1. Yes, obvious, would even do it with less (1 votes [4.76%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

  2. Yes (7 votes [33.33%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 33.33%

  3. No but close (4 votes [19.05%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 19.05%

  4. No way (9 votes [42.86%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 42.86%

Now what?

  1. Pass (8 votes [38.10%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 38.10%

  2. Rebid H (12 votes [57.14%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 57.14%

  3. Other (1 votes [4.76%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

If partner had rebid only 2D (F1 but not GF)?

  1. Pass (4 votes [19.05%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 19.05%

  2. Rebid H (16 votes [76.19%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 76.19%

  3. Other (1 votes [4.76%] - View)

    Percentage of vote: 4.76%

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#1 User is offline   apollo1201 

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Posted 2019-July-26, 13:42

Interested to know your thoughts about that. It was IMPs, green vs red opps. But I am more interested in the general philisophy.

Partenr opens 1, RHO passes, and you have

Jxx
QTxxxx
xxx
x

I decided to bid 1. Promising 5-6 minimum, that I obviously didn't have.

On that, LHO also passes and partner bids a GF 2. Usually 5+, 4+ and some 20 HCP or more. She could have a GF "by herself" (i.e. not taking into account my 5-6 HCPs) 2-suiter that she preferred opening at the 1 level (to ease description, save space, be more prepared if opps preempt...), or could even have a 3415 too strong to splinter.

2 is absolutely forcing, but...answer easier at MPs I guess...so what now?

And if partner "only" reverses with 2 (in that case, she can't have 4-cd support)?
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#2 User is offline   KingCovert 

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Posted 2019-July-26, 14:45

Well, given the set of agreements, you must bid 3H. It's really not a choice. I never would have bid 1H with this hand... I'd have made a weak jump shift, and if I don't play weak jump shifts... Well... I'd stop playing this system, it sounds deeply flawed.
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#3 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-26, 15:01

I'd need to see the hand opposire to know how we'd bid it, (if I'd been first in, partner wouldn't have had the chance to open,this is an easy 2 for us). Particularly opposite a potentially short club (which I don't play), I'd respond 1 but I hate the 2 bid in the way you play it. We use 1 as nat, F if you had a response, 2 as a completely different hand type and 2N with a rarely broken puppet to 3 for the monster which opener then clarifies. You really need to use 2N as a puppet (breakable with REALLY extreme shape) over 2 so opener can clarify.
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#4 User is offline   HardVector 

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Posted 2019-July-26, 19:43

It's tempting when you make the first mistake to make the second and pass 2s. The problem is not on this hand, but on the next one where partner wants to force to game. You've now shown that you are going to pass 2s, so they are going to bid 3s now...or maybe 4. Now your auction is off the rails and YOU are guessing what to do when you actually do have some values.

The whole problem with bidding with this hand is the erosion of partnership trust. Now, if you are playing weak jump-shifts, you have an easy 2h bid after 1c...and for those of you who are unaware, THIS is what a weak jump-shift looks like, not a 6-9 pt hand.
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#5 User is offline   ehui 

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Posted 2019-July-26, 23:38

If you play 2NT as the artificial bid for weak hands after reverse, that should be the choice. Partner then relay to 3 and you bid 3 to show a weak hand with a long suit.
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#6 User is offline   apollo1201 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 03:23

FWIW, we realized WJS in H is not as effective as in’S, so we use it for 5S-4(5)H weak hands (I think it is called reverse Flannery in UK/US). With 2S WJS (less than a weak 2 opening).

Partner had a standard GF hand AQxx x AKx KQJxx and duly scored in our column after I passed. Needless to say, my pass came as a shock to opps and partner. Who sympathetically laughed when I tabled my hand.

So no trust breach but informative deal on how far we bend rules and understand each other.
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#7 User is offline   sfi 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 03:30

There is a standard line of thinking that you should always honour your partner's forcing bids, even if you have shaded a previous call. This is all very good advice and it helps build trust so that partner will feel they can rely on you in future.

However, it isn't always the way to win. Kit Woolsey eloquently made the case for backing your judgement and being able to pass forcing bids when you deem it right. He did point out two caveats if you are going to do this:
  • You have to have sufficient information to be reasonably sure that pass is the right action. Simply feeling guilty about your previous call is not sufficient reason.
  • Partner has to be able to allow you to back your decisions. He says that he wouldn't play with someone that didn't, but most of us don't have the luxury to be so choosy about who we play with.


It's worth pointing out that his is a minority view and an approach you would like to have discussed before actually passing a forcing bid.
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#8 User is offline   sfi 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 04:17

Looking at the actual hand, I would bid over 2S. Partner shouldn't bid 2S with some random 19 count - the bid should be reserved for those hands which really don't want partner to pass - so I expect we'll have play for game somewhere. For instance, I would chosen 1S on opener's hand with the assumption that 1S is as forcing as 1C was. If partner bid 1H with insufficient values, they could pass 1S. But with a real responding hand, they should bid again.

So my bidding would have gone 1C - 1H; 1S - pass.
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#9 User is offline   etha 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 05:29

4
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#10 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 05:44

 sfi, on 2019-July-27, 04:17, said:

Looking at the actual hand, I would bid over 2S. Partner shouldn't bid 2S with some random 19 count - the bid should be reserved for those hands which really don't want partner to pass - so I expect we'll have play for game somewhere. For instance, I would chosen 1S on opener's hand with the assumption that 1S is as forcing as 1C was. If partner bid 1H with insufficient values, they could pass 1S. But with a real responding hand, they should bid again.

So my bidding would have gone 1C - 1H; 1S - pass.


Same, game is not good opposite KQJxx and out let alone what you have, 2 is too much.
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#11 User is offline   pescetom 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 07:06

 HardVector, on 2019-July-26, 19:43, said:

It's tempting when you make the first mistake to make the second and pass 2s. The problem is not on this hand, but on the next one where partner wants to force to game. You've now shown that you are going to pass 2s, so they are going to bid 3s now...or maybe 4. Now your auction is off the rails and YOU are guessing what to do when you actually do have some values.

The whole problem with bidding with this hand is the erosion of partnership trust.


I agree with this and disagree with Kit Woolsey here. Partners should be able to trust in obedience of forcing bids, otherwise they aren't going to bid effectively in future. Most of us already make partner's life difficult enough with mistakes and unexpected choices without intentionally violating core agreements.
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#12 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 08:05

 sfi, on 2019-July-27, 03:30, said:

There is a standard line of thinking that you should always honour your partner's forcing bids, even if you have shaded a previous call. This is all very good advice and it helps build trust so that partner will feel they can rely on you in future.


I agree with this. It is not this hand you are so concerned about, but the next one.

I don’t play Cyberyet’s methods, but we do play that 1 is forcing. Should we make it “virtually forcing”? I don’t know, but anyway I have no problem with a 1 response here.
I know not with what weapons World War III will be fought, but World War IV will be fought with sticks and stones -- Albert Einstein
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#13 User is offline   msjennifer 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 09:12

Sir. (1),I shall never bid 1 heart.NO WAY. (2) I can not understand why 2S is a game force WITHOUT ANY HCP .on his own.Such a hand would be opened 2C will it not? (3)Granted even viif 2S it is a one round force then having made the mistake of responding 1H earlier I dare not bid such a poor heart suit which bypasses 2NT,3C and 3D on the way at 3 level and hence I shall PASS the 2S bid as opener has failed to open a self sufficient game forcing hand with a 2C opening.By the way, I just might use a LEBENSOHL type 2NT bid and then a 3H forced bid over 3C by opener .However I seriously doubt if such a treatment iwill be agreeable to all. (4) Having committed the mistake of a 1H over bid earlier I shall be forced to show my six card heart suit AT THE TWO level when opener bids 2D(and not 2 S) since it has been agreed to as a one round force.
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#14 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 09:47

 Vampyr, on 2019-July-27, 08:05, said:

I agree with this. It is not this hand you are so concerned about, but the next one.

I don’t play Cyberyet’s methods, but we do play that 1 is forcing. Should we make it “virtually forcing”? I don’t know, but anyway I have no problem with a 1 response here.


Our logic is that we don't penalise partner for improving the contract, so 1 is forcing if you had anything close to a real response,this hand isn't anywhere close so pass is allowed.
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#15 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 09:50

 msjennifer, on 2019-July-27, 09:12, said:

Sir. (1),I shall never bid 1 heart.NO WAY. (2) I can not understand why 2S is a game force WITHOUT ANY HCP .on his own.Such a hand would be opened 2C will it not? (3)Granted even viif 2S it is a one round force then having made the mistake of responding 1H earlier I dare not bid such a poor heart suit which bypasses 2NT,3C and 3D on the way at 3 level and hence I shall PASS the 2S bid as opener has failed to open a self sufficient game forcing hand with a 2C opening.By the way, I just might use a LEBENSOHL type 2NT bid and then a 3H forced bid over 3C by opener .However I seriously doubt if such a treatment iwill be agreeable to all. (4) Having committed the mistake of a 1H over bid earlier I shall be forced to show my six card heart suit AT THE TWO level when opener bids 2D(and not 2 S) since it has been agreed to as a one round force.


It's the sort of 20-21 unbalanced hand where partner's presumed 5 count for his response is likely to be enough to make game decent. I don't agree with it on the actual hand.

And you can't pass 2, you deserve partner to be holding AKxx, AKx, x, KQJxx where 4 is cold.
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#16 User is offline   mikestar13 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 10:14

Not playing weak jump shifts, I would pass 1 but having bid 1 I would honor the force. Had a hand once AKQxxxAKQxxxA-- and all I needed was some kind of major suit fit. I opened 1 (Strong, artificial and forcing), and partner holding Jxxxxxxxxxxxx judged to violate system and pass. (Not saying I chose the best opening, but I was new then.) I can make a case for passing a forcing but limited bid, but not 2 in OP's auction.
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#17 User is offline   msjennifer 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 10:47

 Cyberyeti, on 2019-July-27, 09:50, said:

It's the sort of 20-21 unbalanced hand where partner's presumed 5 count for his response is likely to be enough to make game decent. I don't agree with it on the actual hand.

And you can't pass 2, you deserve partner to be holding AKxx, AKx, x, KQJxx where 4 is cold.

Sir.Kindly excuse me but I have said I shall prefer to bid 2NT (Lebensohl extended)asking opener to bid 3C over which I shall bid 3H. .Of course I have made it clear that such a treatment may not be acceptable to most if not all..Thanks.
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#18 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 16:36

 msjennifer, on 2019-July-27, 10:47, said:

Sir.Kindly excuse me but I have said I shall prefer to bid 2NT (Lebensohl extended)asking opener to bid 3C over which I shall bid 3H. .Of course I have made it clear that such a treatment may not be acceptable to most if not all..Thanks.


The thing about passing was meant for the OP. Getting as high as 3 is an invite for partner to either bid a terrible 3N, or for you to play a horrible 3, much better to be in 1.
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#19 User is offline   Tramticket 

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Posted 2019-July-27, 17:04

 Cyberyeti, on 2019-July-27, 09:47, said:

Our logic is that we don't penalise partner for improving the contract, so 1 is forcing


We came to the same conclusion for a different reason. We found over time that we NEVER pass 1S. So it was better to define it as forcing and stop worrying.
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#20 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2019-July-28, 01:10

 Tramticket, on 2019-July-27, 17:04, said:

We came to the same conclusion for a different reason. We found over time that we NEVER pass 1S. So it was better to define it as forcing and stop worrying.


The way you've chopped my post when quoting completely reverses its meaning, and I haven't given the reason why we make it forcing, which is because we play all our jump rebids as a particular hand type 2 good 5+ suits but NOT a great hand, NF but rarely passed.
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