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Suspicious explanation What is our responsibility here?

#1 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 01:55

LHO deals and opens 1, which RHO announces as "short, two clubs". We pass throughout. Partner is on lead, and asks RHO: "Does 1 necessitate* two clubs?", to which RHO replies "yes". We play the hand, it turns out LHO had three clubs.
During the auction and partner's question, I've had doubts about the explanation. It sounds like a strange method and I'm not sure RHO's Hebrew is that good. So:
a) Should I / partner ask the question in various other phrasings to make sure? ("can your partner have more than two clubs?")
b) If you're a director and we call you and complain we miscounted the hand due to the wrong explanation, how do you rule?

* Best translation I could think of from Hebrew. Could also be "mandate" but not "require". For Hebrew speakers, the exact question was "וואן קלאב מחייב שני קלאבים?"
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#2 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 03:11

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 01:55, said:

LHO deals and opens 1, which RHO announces as "short, two clubs". We pass throughout. Partner is on lead, and asks RHO: "Does 1 necessitate* two clubs?", to which RHO replies "yes". We play the hand, it turns out LHO had three clubs.
During the auction and partner's question, I've had doubts about the explanation. It sounds like a strange method and I'm not sure RHO's Hebrew is that good. So:
a) Should I / partner ask the question in various other phrasings to make sure? ("can your partner have more than two clubs?")
b) If you're a director and we call you and complain we miscounted the hand due to the wrong explanation, how do you rule?

* Best translation I could think of from Hebrew. Could also be "mandate" but not "require". For Hebrew speakers, the exact question was "וואן קלאב מחייב שני קלאבים?"


Disclaimer:
Without know the precise alert/announcement regulations.

It seems likely to me that "short. two clubs" really means could be as short as two clubs not must be precisely two clubs.

I am not sure what is lost in translation but there seems an ambiguity in the subsequent question "Does 1 necessitate two clubs?" One could think that 2+ clubs necessitates two clubs but does not necessitate three or any higher number or one could think that necessitates two clubs means necessitates precisely two clubs.
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#3 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 03:26

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 01:55, said:

LHO deals and opens 1, which RHO announces as "short, two clubs". We pass throughout. Partner is on lead, and asks RHO: "Does 1 necessitate* two clubs?", to which RHO replies "yes". We play the hand, it turns out LHO had three clubs.
During the auction and partner's question, I've had doubts about the explanation. It sounds like a strange method and I'm not sure RHO's Hebrew is that good. So:
a) Should I / partner ask the question in various other phrasings to make sure? ("can your partner have more than two clubs?")


It seems so unlikely that they would have to have precisely two clubs in order to open 1 that I would not interpret it that way, and would certainly ask further questions if the difference mattered to me.
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#4 User is offline   BunnyGo 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 03:40

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 01:55, said:

LHO deals and opens 1, which RHO announces as "short, two clubs". We pass throughout. Partner is on lead, and asks RHO: "Does 1 necessitate* two clubs?", to which RHO replies "yes". We play the hand, it turns out LHO had three clubs.
During the auction and partner's question, I've had doubts about the explanation. It sounds like a strange method and I'm not sure RHO's Hebrew is that good. So:
a) Should I / partner ask the question in various other phrasings to make sure? ("can your partner have more than two clubs?")
b) If you're a director and we call you and complain we miscounted the hand due to the wrong explanation, how do you rule?

* Best translation I could think of from Hebrew. Could also be "mandate" but not "require". For Hebrew speakers, the exact question was "וואן קלאב מחייב שני קלאבים?"


I think that while it is possible to interpret the situation as asking if there is exactly two clubs, I think that the more reasonable (and usual) way of interpreting this is as "at least".

In the future, I usually ask as well "העם יכול שיש שש קלאבים, או חייב שרק שתיים" (can he have six clubs, or is it required that it's just two). Don't be afraid to ask lots of questions if you need the info (or are unsure). I know it annoys the opponents, but that's their problem as long as you are not asking just to annoy them.

On another note, I am very amused to see that all the hebrew except for the words "must" and "two" is just transliterated English. Even the word "one" in "one club".
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#5 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 03:47

:) I was worried if I use something like 1, some smart-aleck will wonder if we have club symbols in our language :P
(as an aside, "העם" is "the people", "האם" is "does")
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#6 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 03:51

I think it is pretty obvious that the explanation means 2 or more, even without speaking Hebrew.
As for the director question, if you complained about this I would probably issue you with a procedural penalty for wasting the director's time.
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#7 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 04:09

Huh. Now I have to wonder: let's say they play some home-brewed method where this shows exactly two clubs. Is the onus on them to make extra sure that we understand it's exactly two and not at least two?
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#8 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 04:19

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 04:09, said:

Huh. Now I have to wonder: let's say they play some home-brewed method where this shows exactly two clubs. Is the onus on them to make extra sure that we understand it's exactly two and not at least two?

I would say, "yes"; but I worry about the Hebrew translation of onus.
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#9 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 04:37

Concretely, when we ask the same series of questions, are they expected to add the word "exactly" somewhere in their explanations?
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#10 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 04:58

I think it's their responsibility to ensure their explanation is intelligible, and if their agreement quite remarkable they should stress those aspects that no-one would expect.
Gordon Rainsford
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Posted 2011-October-12, 04:59

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 04:37, said:

Concretely, when we ask the same series of questions, are they expected to add the word "exactly" somewhere in their explanations?

If they they play a system where 1 shows 2 clubs (exactly) then I do not expect them to announce "short, two clubs", I expect them to alert and explain (when asked).

Without knowing the announcing regulations, I expect the announcement "short, ?? clubs" to apply when 1 shows (natural) clubs or a balanced hand.
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#12 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 05:14

The verb "necessitate" does not make the restriction different; what you should ask next time is "does it promise exactly two or at least two?".
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#13 User is offline   Antrax 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 05:45

I didn't ask anything. I was wondering if I should have, when I suspect partner and RHO are have a disagreement about the proper use of the language.
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#14 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 05:56

Yes, I was talking about your partner, my bad. I just wanted to say that "does it necessitate" does not add to the meaning, only if you add "exactly" do you have a more strict condition.

If it necessitates 2 clubs it doesn't mean it can't have three. The construction of a house will necessitate 300,000 dollars in your bank account, but it's OK if you have 500,000.

Of course this is a little bit of mathematical nitpicking, but in this case I happen to agree with it, it is better to ask for clarification, but not with "necessitate", but with "exactly/at least".
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#15 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 05:56

 gwnn, on 2011-October-12, 05:14, said:

The verb "necessitate" does not make the restriction different; what you should ask next time is "does it promise exactly two or at least two?".

No, so you have to be specific. For example, when explaining a negative double say either "exactly four spades" or "at least four spades" as appropriate. Merely saying "four spades" is not so good.
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#16 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 06:06

 helene_t, on 2011-October-12, 05:56, said:

No, so you have to be specific. For example, when explaining a negative double say either "exactly four spades" or "at least four spades" as appropriate. Merely saying "four spades" is not so good.

I agree. Not saying that the explanation was a good one, but the question that was supposed to clarify the bad explanation was unfortunate.
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#17 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 06:24

If according to a disclosure a call shows or promises a specified number of cards in named suit (or suits) I would both as opponent at the table and as director understand that disclosure to mean "at least" the specified number of cards unless the word "exactly" (or an equivalent expression) is added to the specification.

The word "necessitate" does in itself still imply "at least", not "exactly".
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#18 User is offline   iviehoff 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 06:33

 Antrax, on 2011-October-12, 01:55, said:

LHO deals and opens 1, which RHO announces as "short, two clubs". We pass throughout. ... it turns out LHO had three clubs.

Are you also confused when someone playing 5-card majors turns out to have 6 cards in the suit?
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#19 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 08:45

 iviehoff, on 2011-October-12, 06:33, said:

Are you also confused when someone playing 5-card majors turns out to have 6 cards in the suit?

Amtrax wasn't the one with the confusion, and this thread is not about such a common explanation as 5cM. It is about a sloppy way of saying "could be short" and a sloppy way of asking for clarification (allowing for a treatment no one has ever heard of.....exactly two).

OP also wondered if this was an exception to the prohibition of asking questions for the benefit of partner, since he guessed what was happening. My guess is no; but maybe it should be, when partner already asked and there might be confusion about the answer.
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#20 User is offline   bluejak 

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Posted 2011-October-12, 09:00

Questions should be phrased carefully so as not confuse the player answering. Answers should be careful, accurate and full, so as not to confuse the person asking. Sadly, this does not always happen [to be honest, I might have written "Sadly, this does not often happen" :)].

Can a person ask for his partner’s sake because he thinks the answer was poor? No, it is illegal to ask a question for your partner's sake: it is a matter for the end of the auction.
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