An unusual jump
#1
Posted 2013-February-28, 10:15
(1D*) - p - (1H) - p
(2H) - 4S
1D was a nebulous precision 1D opener. You passed initially and then jumped to 4S on the next round.
- hrothgar
#2
Posted 2013-February-28, 10:18
#3
Posted 2013-February-28, 10:22
Edit: hey Fluffy, I was before you!
This post has been edited by helene_t: 2013-February-28, 10:24
#4
Posted 2013-February-28, 10:37
- billw55
#5
Posted 2013-February-28, 10:49
lalldonn, on 2013-February-28, 10:37, said:
OK then. So what would you do with a strong 4171? Sure it is very rare but if the bid for it is unused anyway, what would be the harm?
-gwnn
#7
Posted 2013-February-28, 11:05
With 5-7 or similar I'd always have bid on the first round. With 4-7 I wouldn't offer spades as trumps. The only other possible meaning is as a self-fit bid on the way to 5♦, but if I wanted to play 5♦ I would have overcalled it on the first round.
If it came up at the table, I'd just assume partner's hand had mutated from 3xx4 to 7xx0.
#8
Posted 2013-February-28, 11:10
Cyberyeti, on 2013-February-28, 10:51, said:
Since 1D is nebulous, you could have a Leaping Michaels agreement over 2H.
Namely, 4D-jump showing (5/5)+ in ♠/♦ .
Edit: If you just wanted to show 4 cd ♠, wouldn't you just DBL 2H ?
This post has been edited by TWO4BRIDGE: 2013-February-28, 11:14
TWOferBRIDGE
"imo by far in bridge the least understood concept is how to bid over a jump-shift
( 1M-1NT!-3m-?? )." ....Justin Lall
" Did someone mention relays? " .... Zelandakh
K-Rex to Mikeh : " Sometimes you drive me nuts " .
#9
Posted 2013-February-28, 11:27
Similarly, with 5S and 7C I would overcall 2C then jump to 4S.
#10
Posted 2013-February-28, 11:27
TWO4BRIDGE, on 2013-February-28, 11:10, said:
Namely, 4D-jump showing (5/5)+ in ♠/♦ .
Edit: If you just wanted to show 4 cd ♠, wouldn't you just DBL 2H ?
We have concrete agreements that pass then a bid over one of these nebulous minors shows diamonds as well. Thinking further on this:
Dbl of 2♥ would be 3 suited without ♥.
6+♦ = P then 3♦
5♠/4♦ or any 6+♠ = just overcall ♠
5♠/5♦ = P then 2♠
5♠/6♦ = P then 3♠
7♦/4♠ = 4♦
So 4♠ would be 5/7 or too big a 5/6 to risk partner passing.
#11
Posted 2013-February-28, 11:32
gnasher, on 2013-February-28, 11:05, said:
With 5-7 or similar I'd always have bid on the first round.
Why though? Even if you get to bid 4D next, we will have the problem of partner correcting with 2 spades and playing the wrong suit. Passing then jumping to 4S gets partner to go back to diamonds rather than us getting tapped in a 5-2, and it also makes it more likely we will get both of our suits in economically (ie, our last bid being 4S Not 5D) before getting preempted.
#12
Posted 2013-February-28, 12:53
JLOGIC, on 2013-February-28, 11:27, said:
Similarly, with 5S and 7C I would overcall 2C then jump to 4S.
I agree, although I would describe the auction as abnormal, on the grounds that it does not come up very often!
#13
Posted 2013-February-28, 14:29
AQ9xx
-
AQJ8xxx
A
Do you think that this a suitable hand?
- hrothgar
#15
Posted 2013-February-28, 15:32
I mean, clearly the leap sounds like a spade-diamond canape. That much is obvious.
I am curious what (1♦)-2NT shows. If both minors, then a leap to 4♣ in this sequence would not logically shows a club-diamond canape unless the canape is extreme, like 7-4. With even 6-5, surely 3NT now shows that hand?
But, 4♥ has a meaning (1♦-P-1♥-P-2♥-4♥), and this must help to define this sequence.
One possibility for 4♥ is a shortness bid, suggesting that 4♠ (instead) looks like 5-2-6-0. But, that seems wrong to me.
Instead, it seems to me that 4♥ is the alternative way to show the spade-diamond canape (especially if 2NT would have taken care of the minor 6-5 and 4♣ the minor 7-4). Typically, the artificial means shows the shorter holding, while bidding shows the longer holding (e.g., Stayman versus bidding 2♠ as a means to show spades).
Thus, it seems that 4♥ would show the 4♠/7♦ type of hand, while 4♠ shows more of a 5-6 layout. Still canape, but less severely so.
Now, I could be sold on 4♥ as a sort of Last Train concept, as well, but this seems like a strain-before-level issue to me.
-P.J. Painter.
#16
Posted 2013-February-28, 17:23
Cyberyeti, on 2013-February-28, 15:10, said:
Obv the hand if you are in first seat is a near slam force on it's own, but after a 1D opener it is no longer as good, I think it's a fine hand for bidding that way.
#17
Posted 2013-March-01, 00:56
#18
Posted 2013-March-01, 04:27
JLOGIC, on 2013-February-28, 17:23, said:
Except that given that you have 7 diamonds and one club, the odds of opener having clubs rather than diamonds in his precision diamond are much higher, (3)4(2)4 or similar is very likely depending on NT range. Partner is hardly going to work out that K, xxxxx, 109, xxxxx is dynamite.