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Where would you rather be? You only get two choices

Poll: Which contract would you prefer to be in on the pair of hands below? (MP) (33 member(s) have cast votes)

Which contract would you prefer to be in on the pair of hands below? (MP)

  1. 1S (24 votes [72.73%])

    Percentage of vote: 72.73%

  2. 2NT (9 votes [27.27%])

    Percentage of vote: 27.27%

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#1 User is offline   Elianna 

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Posted 2010-September-07, 23:44

Your options are 1S by North or 2NT by North.

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#2 User is online   mike777 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 00:06

No


Always have the option ...no
--------------


Guys you must must Know.........you always have the option NOOOOOOOOO
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#3 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 00:30

I'd definitely prefer 1S myself.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 03:11

1 seems to score better. I'd always play 2NT though, 1 is forcing for me
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#5 User is offline   JLOGIC 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 03:16

Fluffy, on Sep 8 2010, 04:11 AM, said:

1 seems to score better. I'd always play 2NT though, 1 is forcing for me

I guess I'm strange, playing 3N with 25 HCP and good honors/spot cards seems pretty normal!
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#6 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 04:13

Quote

1♠ is forcing for me


I wouldn't pass S hand after 1 but playing 1 is as forcing doesn't make sense.
Afterall opener is limited in strength and length and responder could be very weak.
For example with:

9xx
KJ7xx
xxxx
x

Why don't just pass 1 ?

On actual hand i prefer to be in 1 given the choice but I don't see how I would stop short of 3NT in real bridge. Even playing "standard" it would go:

1 - 1
1 - 1NT
3NT
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#7 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 04:32

1S might be F for you but it isn't unless you have an agreement. As 1S for most is NF I would pass the S hand at pairs.
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#8 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 04:39

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#9 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 05:24

bluecalm, on Sep 8 2010, 11:13 AM, said:

I wouldn't pass S hand after 1 but playing 1 is as forcing doesn't make sense.
Afterall opener is limited in strength and length and responder could be very weak.

I think you'll find that people who play 1 as forcing do so because in their methods 1 is unlimited.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#10 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 05:30

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

I'm sure OP is asking because the bidding went either:

1-1
1-Pass

or

1-1
2NT-Pass

And partner would have preferred the other auction.

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#11 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 07:47

Hanoi5, on Sep 8 2010, 12:30 PM, said:

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

On a non-trump lead, I play four rounds of diamonds throwing a club, then I crossruff.

On a trump lead, I try to do something with the clubs.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#12 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 09:31

JLOGIC, on Sep 8 2010, 01:30 AM, said:

I'd definitely prefer 1S myself.

maybe. But your partner's Meckwellian tendencies will take over at vul IMPS and you will have to play 3NT :D
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#13 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 09:33

Hanoi5, on Sep 8 2010, 06:30 AM, said:

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

I'm sure OP is asking because the bidding went either:

1-1
1-Pass

or

1-1
2NT-Pass

And partner would have preferred the other auction.

actually I was envisioning an auction more like
1 1
1 1NT
2NT
"Tell me of your home world, Usul"
the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"

"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."

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#14 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 10:33

bluecalm, on Sep 8 2010, 10:13 AM, said:

Afterall opener is NOT limited in strength

FYP ;)

you can play as you want, but let me play the way I want to hehe.
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#15 User is offline   dkharty 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 11:01

hanp, on Sep 8 2010, 05:39 AM, said:

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.

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#16 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 11:54

dkharty, on Sep 8 2010, 12:01 PM, said:

hanp, on Sep 8 2010, 05:39 AM, said:

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.

Han is never afraid to swim against the current.

on the beach he charges the tsunamis ;)
"Tell me of your home world, Usul"
the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"

"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."

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#17 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 14:03

Quote

I think you'll find that people who play 1♠ as forcing do so because in their methods 1♠ is unlimited.


Quote

FYP

you can play as you want, but let me play the way I want to hehe.


Do you guys play polish club or some sort of strong diamond or club ?
Opening 1m is limited to about 22hcp. Then if you bid 1 you are still limited to that (in standard you shouldn't be at the top of this range but let assume we play it that way).
I still can have a hand I want to pass opposite this assuming GF hands open 2 or something.
You can agree that 1 is bid with every hand with 4 but still if you don't play forcing 1m openers it doesn't make sense to play it forcing here.

Wouldn't you pass with:

xxx
KJxxx
xxxx
x

?
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#18 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 14:40

Yeh, 1 rebid forcing ---If this big, it is either balanced or exactly 4-1-4-4. A biggie otherwise unbalanced with longer diamonds would have rebid 2.

Bluecalm's XXX KJXXX XXXX X would rebid 2D after responding 1H. Any hand tempted to pass a 1S rebid would not respond 1.
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#19 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 15:33

Well if I absolutely have to play 1 or 2NT then I'll play 2NT. But how do you get to either of those?! I'd open the North hand 2NT (as I play 19-20). OK, so suppose we play 20-22 instead and don't feel like upgrading, so open 1, then South bids 1 and we rebid 2NT 18-19, then we may end up in 2NT if south doesn't raise (though one would hope he does, particularly at teams).

If we don't feel like doing that we bid 2S instead surely to show the extra strength and then south is bidding 3NT?

ahydra
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#20 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-September-08, 16:17

bluecalm, on Sep 8 2010, 09:03 PM, said:

Wouldn't you pass with:

xxx
KJxxx
xxxx
x

After 1-1;1? No, I'd bid 2, regardless of whether 1 was forcing.

After 1-1;1, I'd pass even if playing 1 as forcing. I've passed forcing bids before.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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