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What does the pauses, demonstrably, suggest. Prequal to ruling.

#1 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 06:59

Hi all,

Any input or advise is appriciated.

Pass - (Pass) - 1 - (Pass)
41 - (Pass) - 4 - (X)
Pass2

1 = Long pause
2 = Short pause, but noticeable

What does the pauses, if anything, suggest? And how demonstrably do they suggest it?

Best Regards
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Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#2 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 09:09

Are the pair of a standard where 4 might have been natural ? if so, that's what it suggests. Any non pass other than a possible XX with a really good hand is disallowed.
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#3 User is offline   weejonnie 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 09:39

I must admit I cannot think that 4 is natural (having passed the first time round). However I suppose it is possible.

I suspect that the 'virtual system file' is marked down as 'natural' or 'no agreement' or possibly 'splinter' or even 'fit jump' - in which case the pause doesn't really convey much and certainly doesn't demonstrably suggest that 4 is going to be preferred over another call. All that is known is that the bidder did not think that 4 was an obvious bid.

if there is no agreement then presumably partner can bid what they want as they will have to guess its actual meaning.

Was the 4 call alerted/ not alerted? If so that may provide UI.

The pause after the double (presumably for penalties) could be construed either as contemplating a redouble (i.e. partner has a maximum) or contemplating running to 5. In neither case is any action demonstrably suggested.

Note that the side that has passed initially - and then doubled - may be allowed restoration of equity if it turns out that 4 wasn't natural. (splinter or no agreement) and not alerted. Would need to know if any questions were asked at the end of the auction about the call.

This assumes all non-natural calls of suits in the first round of the auction have to be alerted. i.e. opening bid and the next three calls. Different RAs may have different rules.
No matter how well you know the laws, there is always something that you'll forget. That is why we have a book.
Get the facts. No matter what people say, get the facts from both sides BEFORE you make a ruling or leave the table.
Remember - just because a TD is called for one possible infraction, it does not mean that there are no others.
In a judgement case - always refer to other TDs and discuss the situation until they agree your decision is correct.
The hardest rulings are inevitably as a result of failure of being called at the correct time. ALWAYS penalize both sides if this happens.
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#4 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 10:41

Since when does "no agreement" require an alert?
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#5 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 11:00

 blackshoe, on 2016-December-03, 10:41, said:

Since when does "no agreement" require an alert?

If you play splinters in other sequences, this might be considered part of that default agreement, and should be alerted. If he doesn't alert, you can infer that he didn't treat it that way.

#6 User is offline   ggwhiz 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 11:10

The 1st pause might well be wary of a light 3rd seat opener or........?

The "short but noticeable pause" over the double of 4 could easily be interpreted as surprise at a sneak attack by south or.......?

If this auction doesn't go float from here there will be a forensic audit of their agreements and cards before I would be prepared to rule but it's a longshot that I don't rule 4 doubled as the final contract.
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#7 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 12:06

 blackshoe, on 2016-December-03, 10:41, said:

Since when does "no agreement" require an alert?

I have never accepted "no agreement" as a "hideout" to avoid accusations of misinformation.

But anyway, I believe that every regulation on alerting includes something about calls for which opponents cannot reasonably be expected to have a full understanding and that such calls shall be alerted?

Surely "No agreements" will always qualify for a required alert under such regulations?

(Haven't I somewhere seen: "If you are unsure about partner's call then alert it and explain that you are unsure"?)
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#8 User is offline   sanst 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 13:13

Nobody can give an answer that is based on sufficient information, since that is missing, such as the agreements of this pair. And even with that information you wouldn't get an answer that is useful. We have no idea about the quality of this pair. The way to get a more or less useful answer is to poll the peers of this pair.
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#9 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 13:21

If a pair truly have no agreement on a bid, and the partner of the bidder knows that, then he not unsure about his partner's call. He may be unsure about the meaning of the call, but that doesn't matter. If it did, partner of a player who psychs would get in trouble for not alerting the psych - even if he legitimately had no more reason to expect it than opponents had.
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#10 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 13:42

 sanst, on 2016-December-03, 13:13, said:

Nobody can give an answer that is based on sufficient information, since that is missing, such as the agreements of this pair. And even with that information you wouldn't get an answer that is useful. We have no idea about the quality of this pair. The way to get a more or less useful answer is to poll the peers of this pair.


Thx for the reply. Polling peers is ufortunately not an option.

The pair has no agreements, but the play in a circle, where 4 = Shortness would be the default expectation. But then again, the 4-bidder might not be completely up to date on this.

Best Regards
_____________________________________

Do not underestimate the power of the dark side. Or the ninth trumph.

Best Regards Ole Berg

_____________________________________

We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#11 User is offline   weejonnie 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 14:35

 blackshoe, on 2016-December-03, 10:41, said:

Since when does "no agreement" require an alert?


Since the EBU white book states (1.4.5.2)

Misinformation
The law instructs the TD to presume misexplanation rather than misbid and this presumption will be stronger if the partner’s actions suggest they do not believe their own explanation. There are various possibilities for what the TD will determine is the likely partnership understanding, for example:
(a) The meaning intended by the player who misbid is the partnership understanding.
(b) The partnership understanding is that the call is effectively two-way: either the intended meaning or the explained meaning; perhaps because the agreement changed recently and/or one of the players often forgets the agreement.
© There is no partnership understanding, and that is what the opponents are entitled to know.

And 1.3.1

A player who is not sure whether or not a call made is alertable should alert it. If there is no partnership understanding about the meaning of the call, the player should say so rather than say how is going to treat it.

Then I would suggest that it applies in England - whether it applies elsewhere I do not know.
No matter how well you know the laws, there is always something that you'll forget. That is why we have a book.
Get the facts. No matter what people say, get the facts from both sides BEFORE you make a ruling or leave the table.
Remember - just because a TD is called for one possible infraction, it does not mean that there are no others.
In a judgement case - always refer to other TDs and discuss the situation until they agree your decision is correct.
The hardest rulings are inevitably as a result of failure of being called at the correct time. ALWAYS penalize both sides if this happens.
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#12 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2016-December-03, 18:06

You may be right, but that approach seems likely to increase drastically the number of required, if not the number of given, alerts in a session.
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I have come to realise it is futile to expect or hope a regular club game will be run in accordance with the laws. -- Jillybean
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#13 User is offline   alok c 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 00:17

May be
1)Splinter or limit raise(long pause-thinking)
2)Rdble(short pause-temptation)
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#14 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 02:19

 blackshoe, on 2016-December-03, 18:06, said:

You may be right, but that approach seems likely to increase drastically the number of required, if not the number of given, alerts in a session.

So what?
The purpose of alerts is to alert opponents of possible/probable surprises, and a "No agreement" situation should certainly be a surprise? And I consider the failure to alert when the explanation is "no agreement", "I am unsure" or words to similar effect to automatically be misinformation.

If a side effect of increased number of required alerts turns out to be less abuse of "no agreement" then so much the better.
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#15 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 04:09

So, let me grasp this. The EBU regulation says if we don't have an alertable agreement we should alert it.
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#16 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 05:52

 aguahombre, on 2016-December-04, 04:09, said:

So, let me grasp this. The EBU regulation says if we don't have an alertable agreement we should alert it.

No:
If your explanation will be "No agreement" (or "I don't know") then you should alert the call.
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#17 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 07:10

 pran, on 2016-December-04, 05:52, said:

No:
If your explanation will be "No agreement" (or "I don't know") then you should alert the call.

Maybe. This interpretation seems bizarre at best, though.
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#18 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 09:01

 pran, on 2016-December-04, 05:52, said:

No:
If your explanation will be "No agreement" (or "I don't know") then you should alert the call.

If you have no agreement, you have no alertable agreement. "I don't know" is different.

1) You have an agreement, but don't remember what it is; alert.
2) You have an agreement, but don't know if it is alertable; when in doubt alert.
3) If we had an agreement, it might be alertable: duh, you don't have an agreement.

Apparently, your interpretation of the EBU regs is that they require alerts of things which don't exist. You might be right.
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#19 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 10:46

 pran, on 2016-December-04, 05:52, said:

No:
If your explanation will be "No agreement" (or "I don't know") then you should alert the call.

 blackshoe, on 2016-December-04, 07:10, said:

Maybe. This interpretation seems bizarre at best, though.

 aguahombre, on 2016-December-04, 09:01, said:

If you have no agreement, you have no alertable agreement. "I don't know" is different.

1) You have an agreement, but don't remember what it is; alert.
2) You have an agreement, but don't know if it is alertable; when in doubt alert.
3) If we had an agreement, it might be alertable: duh, you don't have an agreement.

Apparently, your interpretation of the EBU regs is that they require alerts of things which don't exist. You might be right.

See it this way:
No regulation (to my knowledge) states that a call with an undefined interpretation is exempted from alerting.

On the contrary regulations essentially say that you need not alert calls when you know the call sufficiently well to positively explain it as a call that does not require alert.

Other calls must be alerted (unless explicitly exempted, for instance because of bid level).
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#20 User is offline   FrancesHinden 

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Posted 2016-December-04, 11:02

This auction is an example of the reason for the EBU rule.
Option (i): You have an agreement that 4H is natural. You do not alert.
Option (ii): You have an agreement that 4H is artificial. You alert.
Option (iii): You do not have an agreement about this auction, but you are unaware of any possible meaning other than natural. You do not alert, because in your world your agreement is (by definition) natural.
Option (iv): You do not have an agreement about this auction, but you are aware that partner might mean it as shortage, or might mean it as natural. You alert, when asked you say you do not have an agreement but you are aware that it is possible that partner intends it as shortage.

Advantages of option (iv):
- if the opponents do not ask, partner has no UI from the alert, because he also knows you have no agreement but that it might be artificial.
- if you do not alert, opponents know that you believe you have an agreement that it is natural

If you simply don't alert when you have no agreement, then the hand sitting over the 4H bidder is left in a difficult position if he has hearts: if he want to double if it's a splinter but not if it's natural, he is forced to ask just in case it might be a splinter. When you alert, he can ask, and then get the same full disclosure of your agreements: that it is undiscussed but may or may not be artificial.

Also, suppose you don't alert and then treat it is as shortage: you must have some reason for assuming it isn't natural - what is that? You are bidding as if you have an implicit partnership understanding about the meaning of the call. Aren't the opponents entitled to the same information?
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